Private Pilot Quiz

Questions: 16 · 10 minutes
1. A VOR receiver shows a centered CDI, a FROM indication, and 090 selected on the OBS. Where is the aircraft located relative to the station?
On the 090° radial, east of the station
Directly north of the station
Directly south of the station
On the 270° radial, west of the station
2. In cruise flight with a fixed-pitch propeller, what is a common early indication of carburetor icing?
A sudden rise in oil pressure
An immediate increase in engine RPM
A steady increase in exhaust temperature with no power change
A gradual loss of engine RPM, possibly followed by roughness
3. Immediately after an engine failure in flight, what should receive the pilot’s first attention?
Maintaining aircraft control and establishing the appropriate glide attitude or airspeed
Calling air traffic control before altitude is lost
Restarting the engine before changing pitch
Completing every checklist item before selecting a landing area
4. During instrument flight, the attitude indicator shows a slight nose-low attitude, the altimeter is unwinding, and the vertical speed indicator shows a descent. What is the best response?
Make a rapid, large pitch-up input based only on the vertical speed indicator.
Apply a smooth pitch correction and verify the resulting trend across supporting instruments.
Level the wings first, even if they are already level, and ignore pitch indications.
Hold the existing attitude until the airspeed indicator also confirms the descent.
5. When landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway, how can a pilot reduce exposure to wake turbulence?
Stay below the larger aircraft’s approach path and land before its touchdown point.
Follow its exact flight path because the vortices remain outside the wingspan.
Remain above its approach path and touch down beyond its touchdown point.
Land on the downwind edge of the runway regardless of wind direction.
6. On a hot day at a high-elevation airport, how will increased density altitude generally affect takeoff performance?
It will shorten the takeoff roll because the aircraft is already at a higher altitude.
It will lengthen the takeoff roll and reduce climb performance.
It will improve climb performance while reducing true airspeed.
It will have no meaningful effect if indicated airspeed is unchanged.
7. An aerodynamic stall occurs when the wing:
Drops below its published minimum airspeed.
Exceeds its critical angle of attack.
Can no longer produce lift because engine power is too low.
Exceeds the aircraft’s maximum allowable bank angle.
8. In a METAR, what does “A2992” report?
An altimeter setting of 29.92 inches of mercury
A cloud base at 2,992 feet above ground level
A visibility of 2.992 statute miles
An atmospheric pressure of 2,992 millibars
9. In the Northern Hemisphere, what turning error may a magnetic compass show when an aircraft accelerates on an easterly heading?
An apparent turn toward south
No apparent turn because acceleration errors occur only on north or south headings
A continuous turn toward west until acceleration stops
An apparent turn toward north
10. While flying at night over featureless terrain, outside visual references become unreliable. Which instrument should be your primary reference for aircraft attitude?
The magnetic compass
The vertical speed indicator
The attitude indicator
The turn coordinator alone
11. Why can hypoxia be especially hazardous to a pilot?
Judgment and performance may deteriorate before the pilot recognizes the impairment.
It improves confidence while leaving reasoning and coordination unchanged.
Its effects occur only after the pilot loses consciousness.
It always causes sharp chest pain before judgment is affected.
12. The IMSAFE checklist is primarily used to evaluate:
Whether an aircraft has enough fuel and runway for departure
Whether forecast weather meets visual flight rules minimums
An airport’s suitability for instrument approaches
A pilot’s personal fitness for flight
13. Compared with a forward center of gravity, an aft center of gravity generally causes:
A lower cruise speed solely because of increased induced drag
Greater longitudinal stability and higher control forces
Reduced longitudinal stability and potentially more difficult stall recovery
Improved stall recovery because the nose naturally drops more readily
14. While taxiing, you reach a runway hold-short line but are uncertain whether ATC cleared you to cross. What should you do?
Cross quickly if no traffic is visible on final.
Taxi onto the runway and hold there until instructions are clarified.
Stop before the line and ask ATC to confirm the clearance.
Continue across if another aircraft ahead received a crossing clearance.
15. If an aircraft’s static port becomes completely blocked in level flight, what should you expect?
The airspeed indicator drops to zero while the altimeter and vertical speed indicator work normally.
The altimeter freezes, the vertical speed indicator reads zero, and the airspeed indicator becomes inaccurate as altitude changes.
The altimeter and airspeed indicator both read zero, while the vertical speed indicator remains accurate.
All three pitot-static instruments immediately freeze at their current indications.
16. A thunderstorm lies near your planned route. Which choice best addresses the hazard?
Climb over the storm if the reported ceiling is below the aircraft’s service ceiling.
Fly beneath the cloud base to remain clear of the strongest precipitation.
Pass through the lightest-looking area if the ride is initially smooth.
Avoid the storm by a wide margin and adjust the route or timing as needed.
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